APSC CCE 2023 Prelims MCQ Solved | APSC PYQ

APSC CCE Prelims 2023 solved GS I paper Previous Year Question paper is available here you can download or practice the MCQs

APSC Prelims CCE 2023 PYQ

Practice the MCQs of APSC CCE Preims 2023 GS I PYQ here.

1. Match the following books (List-I) with the authors (List-II):

  1. A Comprehensive History of Assam
  2. The Quest for Modern Assam : A History
  3. The Ahoms : A Reimagined History
  4. Asamiya Manuhar Jati aru Itihas
  1. Arup Jyoti Saikia
  2. Arup Kumar Dutta
  3. Dr. Nagen Saikia
  4. Swarnalata Baruah

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

2. With reference to the Charaideo Maidams, consider the following statements:

  1. These are mounds containing the remains of the royalty of the Varman dynasty.
  2. They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range.
  3. Charaideo is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  4. The first king who was buried after death here was Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(C) (ii) only

3. With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements:

  1. The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance.
  2. It does not regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972.
  3. Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of ASI.
  4. It is attached to the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(B) (i) and (iii) only

4. Match the following wetlands (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

  1. Urpad Beel
  2. Son Beel
  3. Tamranga Beel
  4. Nandini-Sonai Beel
  1. Bongaigaon
  2. Goalpara
  3. Morigaon
  4. Karimganj

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

5. Match the following institutions (List-I) with the years of their establishment (List-II):

  1. Cotton College
  2. Gauhati University
  3. Assam Agricultural University
  4. Tezpur University
  1. 1901
  2. 1948
  3. 1969
  4. 1994

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

6. Consider the following developments pertaining to the history of modern education in India:

  1. Sadler University Commission
  2. Lord Macaulay's Minute
  3. Raleigh Commission
  4. Wood's Dispatch

Select the correct chronological order of these developments using the codes given below.





(B) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i)

7. With reference to the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, consider the following statements:

  1. The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty.
  2. The temples at Khajuraho are associated with Hinduism and Jainism.
  3. The temples were built in Dravidian-style architecture.
  4. These are situated in Chhatarpur district of Maharashtra.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(B) (i) and (ii) only

8. Consider the following events pertaining to the Freedom Movement of India:

  1. Mountbatten Plan
  2. Quit India Movement
  3. Wavell Plan
  4. Royal Indian Navy Mutiny

Select the correct chronological order of these events using the codes given below.





(D) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)

9. The NITI Forum of North-East 2018 was set up in February 2018 to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth. Which of the following focus areas for North-East which are/is not in the list of focus areas?

  1. Tourism
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Pulses
  4. Fruits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iii) only

10. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

  1. State bird of Assam : Hornbill
  2. State animal of Assam : Rhino
  3. State flower of Assam : Sunflower
  4. State tree of Assam : Hollong

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (i) and (iii) only

11. Consider the following pairs:

  1. Lumbini : Birth
  2. Sarnath : Dharmachakrapravartana
  3. Kushinagar : The Enlightenment
  4. Benares : The Miracles

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.





(B) (i) and (ii) only

12. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission of India:

  1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
  2. Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census.
  3. The first delimitation exercise in independent India was held in 1950-51 as per the 1951 Census.
  4. The present delimitation of Parliamentary Constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002.

Select the correct statement/statements regarding Delimitation Commission of India.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

13. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:

  1. The Election Commission is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures and the office of the President and the Vice-President.
  2. The power of the Election Commission of India is derived from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
  3. Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner who joined his office on 15th May 2022.
  4. The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years.

Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.





(B) (iv) only

14. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India:

  1. GST is a successor to VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services.
  2. GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Constitution of India.
  3. Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.
  4. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Prime Minister.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

15. Consider the following statements regarding Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

  1. Article 226 of India empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
  2. The phrase 'for any other purpose' refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.
  3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e., it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
  4. The High Court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.





(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

16. Which of the following Autonomous Councils in Assam has/have been formed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region
  2. Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council
  3. Dima Hasao Autonomous Council
  4. Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

17. Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions to some of the States of India made by the Constitution:

  1. Article 371-A provides for the special provisions for the State of Assam under this Part of the Constitution. Under this, the President of India is empowered to provide for the creation of committee of members elected from tribal areas in the Assam Legislative Assembly and such other members as he/she may specify.
  2. Article 371-C was added by the 27th Amendment Act of 1969. Article 371-D deals with special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371-E deals with the establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh.
  3. 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 inserted Articles 371-D and 371-E into the Constitution.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(A) (ii) only

18. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of official languages in the Constitution of India:

  1. Article 343 of the Constitution of India has made Hindi in Devanagari Script as the official language of India.
  2. The Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State as the official language/languages of the State as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.
  3. The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 has been legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

19. Match the following members of the Indian Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters (List-II):

  1. Fourth Schedule
  2. Eleventh Schedule
  3. Third Schedule
  1. Forms of Oath or Affirmations
  2. Languages
  3. Powers of Panchayats
  4. Allocation of Seats in the Council of States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-4, b-3, c-1

20. Consider the following factors regarding the declaration of a political party as a State Party by the Election Commission of India:

  1. If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the respective State Legislative Assembly and wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly.
  2. If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and also it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the same State.
  3. If it wins 3% of seats in the Legislative Assembly at a general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned or 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more).
  4. If it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election from the State or to the State Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct factor/factors using the codes given below.





(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

21. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between censure and no-confidence motion?

  1. A censure motion should state the reason for its adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion need not state the reason for its adoption.
  2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers or an individual Minister, or a group of Ministers.
  3. A no-confidence motion is passed on the other hand, the government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
  4. A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

22. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Legislative Assembly:

  1. According to the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935, a Bicameral Legislature of Assam Province came into existence in 1937.
  2. The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly took place on 7th April, 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong.
  3. Pulakesh Baruah and Ganesh Kutum were the Speakers of Assam Legislative Assembly from Asom Gana Parishad and Janata Party respectively.
  4. Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

23. It is easier to roll a barrel than to pull it because





(B) rolling friction is much less than sliding friction

24. The mass of a body is different from its weight because





Select the correct reason/reasons using the codes given below.





(D) (ii) and (iv) only

25. Paddy fields are chief sources of which of the following greenhouse gases?





Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i) and (iii) only

26. Which of the following groups contains/contain only non-biodegradable materials?





Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (ii) only

27. For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends on




Select the correct factor/factors using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

28. One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because




Select the valid reason/reasons using the codes given below.





(A) (ii) and (iii) only

29. Consider the following pairs of scientists and discoveries :

  1. Copernicus : Law of gravitation
  2. Kepler : Laws of planetary motion
  3. Galileo : Moons of Jupiter
  4. Newton : Heliocentric theory

Select the correct matched pairs using the codes given below.





(B) (ii) and (iii) only

31. Solutions are of many types. Consider the following types of solution with an example each :

  1. Gas in liquid - Vinegar
  2. Solid in liquid - Brine
  3. Solid in solid - Brass
  4. Liquid in liquid - Coca-Cola

Select the correct matched pairs using the codes given below.





(B) (ii) and (iii) only

32. Which of the following elements does sugar contain?





Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

33. Consider the following statements :

  1. Assam was formed into a Chief Commissioner's Province in 1874.
  2. Assam was declared as a Governor's Province in 1921.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(C) Both (i) and (ii)

34. The Interim Budget-2024 announces measures for the implementation of Eco-nomic Railway Corridors identified under the PM Gati Shakti for enabling multi-modal connectivity. Which of the following is/are included in this?

  1. Energy, Mineral and Cement Corridors
  2. Rural Roads Connectivity Corridors
  3. Port Connectivity Corridors
  4. High Traffic Density Corridors

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

35. Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India?

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State's Budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting'.
  2. Launching the second Green Revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iii) only

36. What is 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol'?





(A) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emissions

37. Which of the following faunas are found in North-East India?

  1. Tokay Gecko
  2. Red Panda
  3. Hoolock Gibbon
  4. Lion-tailed Macaque

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

38. Which of the following National Parks in India are World Heritage Sites?

  1. Keoladeo National Park
  2. Manas National Park
  3. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
  4. Great Himalayan National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

39. Protection of wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India?

  1. Fundamental Duties
  2. Directive Principles
  3. Seventh Schedule
  4. Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

40. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of their habitat?





(B) Adaptation

41. Recently the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), 2023 was submitted by PRATHAM. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Report?

  1. The Report focused on 14-18 years of age group.
  2. According to the Report, the percentage of youths not enrolled in any form of formal education has gone up for 17-18 years old and gone down as compared to the year 2017.
  3. For discontinuing education, almost 20% of girls attributed it to family constraints.
  4. The Report asserted that the fear that several older students dropped out of school during the COVID-19 pandemic due to loss of livelihood was true.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i) and (iii) only

42. Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbor Deuri, a prominent leader of the Tribal League :

  1. Bhimbor Deuri vehemently opposed the Muslim League's conspiracy to include Assam in a grouping plan with Bengal.
  2. Bhimbor Deuri supported a separate electorate for the tribal people for strengthening the rights of indigenous communities.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(C) Both (i) and (ii)

43. Match the following folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II):

  1. Hacha Kekan
  2. Hanaghora
  3. Biyusyo Jama Dance
  4. Baidima
  1. Dimasa
  2. Karbi
  3. Rabha
  4. Deuri

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

44. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

  1. Finance Commission : Constitutional Body
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India : Statutory Body
  3. NITI Aayog : Constitutional Body
  4. Reserve Bank of India : Statutory Body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iii) only

45. Which of the following groups of places is/are located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra?

  1. Bijni, Jogighopa, Raha, Titabar
  2. Hajo, Sarthebari, Moran, Bihpuria
  3. Pathsala, Bongaigaon, Dhekiajuli, Gohpur
  4. Soalkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, Narayanpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (iii) only

46. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the popular sobriquets by which they are known (List-II):

  1. Anandiram Das
  2. Parbati Prasad Baruah
  3. Bishnuram Medhi
  4. Hemchandra Baruah
  1. Geetikavi
  2. Lauha Manab
  3. Bonkonwar
  4. Tyagbir

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

47. Which of the following is/are correct about 'eRupee'?

  1. It refers to Rupee circulation in Europe.
  2. It refers to exchange rate of Rupee.
  3. It is digital Rupee App of the State Bank of India.
  4. It is the Central Bank Digital Currency.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (iv) only

48. The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to have multiple benefits for India. Which of the following is/are in the list of benefits?

  1. It is a new and more efficient way for India to export its goods to Europe.
  2. It would make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.
  3. The construction and maintenance of the Economic Corridor would create millions of new jobs in India.
  4. The construction of the Corridor would be done under the supervision of the World Trade Organization.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

49. Match the following places (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

  1. Sitalsakhala
  2. Silghat
  3. Kulshi
  4. Semkhor
  1. Dima Hasao
  2. Kamrup
  3. Nagaon
  4. Morigaon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

50. Chief Minister's Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal was launched on 23rd September, 2023. To qualify for financial assistance of ₹ 2.50 lakh under the following criteria are necessary:

  1. The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam.
  2. The applicant must not be older than 28 years of age.
  3. The applicant must have a bank account opened before 31st December, 2023.
  4. The applicant must have a professional degree in engineering/medical/dental/veterinary/fishery/agriculture, etc.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i) and (ii) only

51. Which of the following is/are correct about a Bad Bank?

  1. A bank that is insolvent
  2. A bank that has become bankrupt
  3. A bank whose NPAs have crossed the tolerable limit
  4. A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (iv) only

52. Pick up the wrong statement/statements regarding an Interim Budget in India.

  1. It provides continuity in governance during the transition period between two governments.
  2. The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Budget.
  3. The 'Economic Survey' is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget.
  4. It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iii) only

53. INS Imphal was delivered to the Indian Navy on 20th October, 2023. Which of the following statements about INS Imphal is/are not correct?

  1. It is a Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.
  2. It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd.
  3. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2023.
  4. The ship boasts indigenous content of 100%.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (iv) only

54. The HUMPI World War II Museum was opened in Arunachal Pradesh in 2023. Which of the following statements are correct pertaining to the Museum?

  1. The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat.
  2. The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice-covered eastern Himalayan mountains.
  3. This dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma/Myanmar.
  4. The route also earned the moniker 'Aluminium Trail' because of the number of crashes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (ii) and (iii) only

55. Which of the following lists correctly carry the names of the five-member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November, 2019?





(A) Ranjan Gogoi, S.A. Bobde, Ashok Bhushan, Justice Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

56. Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

  1. Bordoibam Bilmukh WLS
  2. Pabha WLS
  3. Pani Dihing WLS
  4. Gibbon WLS
  1. Lakhimpur
  2. Dhemaji
  3. Sivasagar
  4. Jorhat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

57. Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Grammy Awards :

  1. Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys.
  2. Flautist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys.
  3. Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist L. Subramaniam and percussionist Selvaganesh won 1 Grammy each.
  4. The fusion group 'Shakti' won the 2024 Grammy Award for the best global music album for 'This Moment'.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

58. Consider the following pairs :

  1. Mahamaya Temple : Dhubri
  2. Dhekiakhowa Bornaamghar : Golaghat
  3. Midili Than : Dhemaji
  4. Deopani Temple : Jorhat

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.





(B) (i) and (iii) only

59. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the awards/recognitions they had been conferred with (List-II):

  1. Hemaprova Chutia
  2. Jintimoni Kalita
  3. Uma Chetry
  4. Pratima Pandey Baruah
  1. Awarded Padma Shri in 2023
  2. First female participant from Assam in T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kong
  3. Indian cricket player from Assam in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China
  4. Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar, 2023

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

60. India breached the 100-medal mark for the first time in the Asian Games at Hangzhou in China in 2023. Select the correct pair of gold and silver medals from the options given below.





(B) Gold-28, Silver-38

61. The operation to evacuate the Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war is named as





(B) Operation Ajay

62. Match the following historical/tourist places of Assam (List-I) with the corresponding districts where these are located (List-II):

  1. Ghogua Beel
  2. Patharighat
  3. Sankardevi Archaeological Site
  4. Baduli Khurung
  1. Darrang
  2. Dhemaji
  3. Nagaon
  4. Hojai

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

63. Read the following statements regarding 'Blockchain'. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a method of recording information that makes it impossible or difficult for the system to be changed, hacked, or manipulated.
  2. This method can ensure secure transactions, lower compliance expenses and accurate data transfer processing.
  3. This method is used only in financial service industry.
  4. Fuji Nakanori is the name used by the presumed pseudonymous person or persons who developed Bitcoin.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i) and (ii) only

64. Who among the following was awarded the Asom Sourav Award, 2023?





(B) Pranab Jyoti Deka

65. Who among the following are Arjuna Award winners from Assam?

  1. Bhogeswar Baruah
  2. Monalisa Baruah Mehta
  3. Amlan Borgohain
  4. Jayanta Talukdar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

66. The Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA) was announced in February 2024. What are the eligibility criteria for the scheme?

  1. All women self-help groups of Assam are eligible for the scheme.
  2. If the applicants have girl children, they must be enrolled in school.
  3. The trees the applicants had planted under the Amrit Brikshya Andolan should survive.
  4. General and OBC categories applicants cannot have more than three children.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

67. If an individual is awarded with a gold medal called Lachit Borphukan Medal as the best Army Cadet, where has he/she passed out from?





(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

68. Arrange the following Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly in the chronological order :

  1. Pulakesh Baruah
  2. Kuladhar Chaliha
  3. Debeswar Sarma
  4. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)

69. Arrange, in descending order, the population in Assam by languages as per the Census of India, 2011.





(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

70. Which of the following is/are not the work/works of Madhavdeva?

  1. Nam Ghosa
  2. Bhakti Ratnavali
  3. Bhumi Letowa
  4. Balichalan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iv) only

71. Match the following places of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

  1. Titabar
  2. Doulasal
  3. Nazira
  4. Sarthebari
  1. Sivasagar
  2. Barpeta
  3. Jorhat
  4. Nalbari

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

72. Which of the following names of the Agroclimatic Zones of Assam is/are not correct?

  1. Upper Brahmaputra Valley
  2. North Central Brahmaputra Valley
  3. Barail Zone
  4. Hills Zone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (ii) and (iii) only

73. Which of the following statements are correct about the Women's Reservation Bill, 2023?

  1. The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and National Capital Territory of Delhi.
  2. Similar reservation will also be provided within the seats reserved for SC and ST.
  3. The Bill proposes that the reservation will continue for 25 years.
  4. The Bill reserves 1/3rd of total valid votes polled in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies includes the quota for women from the OBCs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

74. Match the following schemes (List-I) with the correct objectives (List-II):

  1. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
  2. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana
  3. CBSE Udaan Scheme
  4. Poshan Abhiyan
  1. It gives importance to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children of 0-6 years of age
  2. It offers free course materials/online resources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards
  3. To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to BPL category
  4. Removing or prevent-ing gender bias and selective abortions for the girl child

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

75. Match the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) (List-I) with the States/Union Territories they belong to (List-II):

  1. Maram
  2. Jarawa
  3. Birhor
  4. Reang
  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Tripura
  3. Manipur
  4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

76. Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheduled Castes in Assam as per the 2011 Census?

  1. Scheduled Caste population constitutes about 7-15% of the total population of Assam.
  2. 16 sub-castes are recognized as SCs in Assam, such as Basfor, Bhumij, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, Kaibartta, etc.
  3. Hailson Hazong is the highest percentage of SC population followed by Sachar and Namasudra.
  4. The literacy rate of SCs in Assam is 66-76% with SC females constituting 55-52% and SC males constituting 44-48%.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i) and (ii) only

77. Match the following demographic terms (List-I) with their meanings (definitions) (List-II):

  1. Birthrate
  2. Crude birth-rate
  3. Cohort fertility
  4. Birth deficit
  1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year
  2. Number of live births per one thousand inhabitants in a year
  3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by its age structure
  4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

78. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the awards conferred on them (List-II):

  1. Pranab Jyoti Deka
  2. Arup Kumar Dutta
  3. Dr. Joyanti Chutia
  4. Dr. Tiyathi Ao
  1. Sahitya Akademi Award
  2. Kalicharan Brahma Award
  3. Shri Madhavdev Award
  4. Sati Sadhani Award

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

79. The Ramchandi Temple, which was built during 12th century, is situated on the bank of which of the following rivers of Assam?





(B) Kushiyara

80. Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel :

  1. He got the moniker Sardar due to his organizational skills during the Bardoli Satyagraha.
  2. The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cell-mates was Yervada Prison.
  3. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989.
  4. He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

81. Match the following names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II):

  1. Susenghphaa
  2. Suremphaa
  3. Sutamla
  4. Supangmung
  1. Rajeswar Singha
  2. Chaladhwaj Singha
  3. Pratap Singha
  4. Jayadhwaj Singha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

82. Gaurinath Singha entered into an agreement with the East India Company on which of the following terms?

  1. All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%.
  2. The duty on export was to be 10%.
  3. Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty.
  4. Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

83. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books written by them (List-II):

  1. Gunabhiram Barua
  2. Harakantha Sarma Baruah
  3. Anandaram Dhekiyal Phukan
  4. Hemchandra Baruah
  1. Asamiya Byakaran
  2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra
  3. Ram Navami
  4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

84. Match the following associations (List-I) with their respective founders (List-II):

  1. Indian League
  2. Indian Association
  3. Assam Association
  4. Jarhat Sarbajanik Sabha
  1. Ananda Mohan Bose
  2. Jagannath Baruah
  3. Sir Sitaram Shankar Ghosh
  4. Manik Chandra Baruah

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

85. The Global Drought Snapshot, released in December 2023 at the beginning of the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP-28) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Dubai, exposes the devastating consequences of droughts on lives, economies, and various sectors. Based on the data reported by 101 parties to the UNCCD, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The report reveals that a staggering 1.84 billion people experienced the effects of drought. Among them, 47% faced severe or extreme drought conditions.
  2. Notably South Africa faced the highest number of declarations.
  3. Drought severity prompted emergency declarations in 23 countries.
  4. The US, Canada, India and Sri Lanka are the countries that never declared drought emergencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i) and (iii) only

86. Which of the following sessions of Asom Sahitya Sabha was/were presided over by Sahityacharya Jatindra Nath Goswami?

  1. Tinsukia
  2. Diphu
  3. Sivasagar
  4. Tezpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (ii) and (iv) only

87. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):

  1. It is the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries in India.
  2. It is implemented in all States/Union Territories as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package for a period of five years from Financial Year 2020-21 to Financial Year 2024-25.
  3. The Central Government bears the project cost and States/Union territories share the cost of sub-components of the scheme.
  4. Ornamental fish cultivation is kept out of focus under PMMSY.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

88. Consider the following statements regarding Jai Jawan Kalyan Yojana (JJJKY):

  1. The programme includes recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation and rainwater harvesting.
  2. It is a demand-driven scheme with strong emphasis on Jai Jawan (community engagement) as a crucial pillar of the project.
  3. The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark Government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh.
  4. An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission's construction phase.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(A) (i) only

89. Consider the following statements :

  1. MV Ganga Vilas is the world's longest river cruise covering over 51 days across 2 countries, 5 States and 27 river systems.
  2. Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the cruise from Varanasi on 13th January, 2023.
  1. The international cruise is being offered by Antara Luxury River Cruises who is operating since 2009.
  2. The journey culminated its journey on 28th February in Sadiya.

Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.





(B) (iv) only

90. Which of the following dramas/Ankiya Nats was/were not composed by Sankardev?

  1. Kaliya Daman
  2. Patni Prasada
  3. Keli Gopal
  4. Arjun Bhanjan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(B) (ii) only

91. India celebrated her 75th Republic Day on 26th January, 2024. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the celebration of the Republic Day, 2024?

  1. The Parade was held on Kartavya Path.
  2. The theme of the 75th Republic Day was 'Viksit Bharat' and 'Bharat - Loktantra Ki Matruka'.
  3. The three States which presented tableaux from North-East India were Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland.
  4. ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandra-yaan-III in the Parade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (i) and (iii) only

92. All the Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav and Assam Gourav awardees are offered certain benefits/facilities. Which of the following is/are included in the list of benefits?

  1. They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available.
  2. They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses/Guest Houses and Assam Bhawans.
  1. They will be regular invitees for all the official functions at distinguished guests.
  2. The Government of Assam will provide them up to ₹ 5-0 lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

93. Consider the following statements :

  1. NISAR is a Low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.
  2. NISAR is a Low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and European Space Agency.
  3. The objective of NISAR is to develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture RADAR on an Earth observation satellite.
  4. NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

94. Consider the following statements :

  1. India's solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.
  2. Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies.
  3. There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system.
  4. There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

95. In the Interim Union Budget, 2024, the Finance Minister mentioned four specific groups of the population to focus on. Which of the following is/are not in the list?





Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (ii) and (iii) only

96. Consider the following statements :

  1. In computer parlance, a cookie is a malicious computer virus.
  2. In computer parlance, a cookie is a small piece of text sent by a web site to the internet browser.
  3. Internet cookies are used by banking websites only.
  4. Internet cookies help the websites to remember the client's visit to the website.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.





(D) (ii) and (iv) only

97. What is/are the factor/factors that has/have prompted the colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in Brahmaputra Valley?

  1. Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal
  2. High demand of jute in the world market
  3. Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

98. Which of the following characteristics make a braided river different from a meandering river of similar discharge?

  1. Wider and shallower
  2. Transports high sediment load
  3. Erodes riverbanks rapidly
  4. Deeper

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

99. In which of the following Satras in Assam, the religious head (Satradhikar) is elected?

  1. Auniati
  2. Dakhinpat
  3. Kamalabari
  4. Barpeta

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(D) (iv) only

100. As per the tripartite Memorandum of Settlement signed between Government of India, Government of Assam with representatives of United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA) on 29th December, 2023, which of the following will not be set up in Assam?

  1. Indian Institute of Management
  2. Indian Institute of Planning and Architecture
  3. Indian Institute of Science
  4. Indian Institute of Science Education and Research

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.





(C) (iii) only